Well, given the history of early Mexico, we could assume that Spain followed a similar path than OTL: a Napoleonic invassion of Spain in 1809 (prompting a first declaration in 1810), and a Riego Constitution, too liberal for the oligarchy in New Spain-->Mexico, prompting the Iterbude Mexican Empire. Am I right?
- Chlewey 14:55, 10 Feb 2005 (GMT)
- Yeah, that's pretty much how I'm viewing it. I'm playing with the idea that there might be some intermarriage between the Mexican and Spanish royal houses, maybe even leading at some point to a personal union, but that's just one idea I'm playing with at the moment. Nik42 21:19, 10 Feb 2005 (GMT)